In my post Bible Contradiction? How many men were possessed with demons at the country of the Gadarenes? I have already shown that there is not a logical contradiction between Matthew 8:28 pitted against Mark 5:12 and Luke 8:26-27 which mentioned there are two men and one man Jesus healed respectively.
A sister in the Lord asked a follow up question:
What then is the significance of Matthew saying 2 versus Mark and Luke saying “a man”? Since most details in God’s Word have a reason or significance behind it, I’m wondering if there’s a deeper meaning/reason behind why each account mentioned the number the way they did?
I don’t think this is easy to answer. Still I think its a fruitful exercise to consider the question by examining more deeper the Scriptures. I will first make some observations and close with some thoughts on its significance.
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