Why Matthew said two men were possessed with demons at the country of the Gadarenes?


The Domain for Truth

In my post Bible Contradiction? How many men were possessed with demons at the country of the Gadarenes? I have already shown that there is not a logical contradiction between Matthew 8:28 pitted against Mark 5:12 and Luke 8:26-27 which mentioned there are two men and one man Jesus healed respectively.

A sister in the Lord asked a follow up question:

What then is the significance of Matthew saying 2 versus Mark and Luke saying “a man”? Since most details in God’s Word have a reason or significance behind it, I’m wondering if there’s a deeper meaning/reason behind why each account mentioned the number the way they did?

I don’t think this is easy to answer.  Still I think its a fruitful exercise to consider the question by examining more deeper the Scriptures.  I will first make some observations and close with some thoughts on its significance.

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6 thoughts on “Why Matthew said two men were possessed with demons at the country of the Gadarenes?

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